 Joined: 2/18/2008(UTC) Posts: 309  Location: Colorado
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Swalchy,
I hear some people say that in Matt 28:1 the Greek uses a plural form for "sabbath" i.e, "sabbaths"?? I see in your translation it is rendered in the singular.
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 Joined: 6/10/2008(UTC)
Posts: 331
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In 33 AD, the first day of the Feast of Unleavened Bread, in itself a sabbath, fell on the weekly sabbath, making it a high holy day. So that could be counted as Sabbaths, yes?
I believe that's what John is indicating in his "gospel", chapter 19, v31:
The Jews therefore, because it was the preparation, that the bodies should not remain upon the cross on the sabbath day, (for that sabbath day was an high day,) besought Pilate that their legs might be broken, and that they might be taken away. |
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