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Usage of the word SHALL - Isaiah 52:6
 Joined: 7/24/2007(UTC)
Posts: 160
Location: Texas
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Okay, I've been reading and for the most part everything makes sense to me, but there are a few parts I've struggled with. Here is one of them that I'd appreciate some insight on.
The part that I'm looking at is quoted from Yada_Yahweh_Salvation_Gaal.YHWH on this site as follows:
"So therefore (ken - this is right, just, honest, verifiable, correct, and true), My family (‘am - relatives) shall know (yada' - possess an awareness of and information regarding it that focuses on relationship, be acquainted with it in a relational sense, discern and recognize) My name (shem)."
I struggle with the definition of the word SHALL and the conclusion: "God just said: if you don't know His name you aren't part of His family. That being the case, consider the damage that has been done by the clerics who have removed His name from His Scriptures. It may well have been the single most spiritually lethal act of all time."
My fear is that this may be what atheists sometimes term as a "creative rewording of what was actually said", but I don't have enough linguistic background to confirm either way.
What I'm wondering is would the use of the word SHALL as it is translated here possibly be limited to just a future tense (i.e., restoration kingdom / the post millennial kingdom) with the idea being that eventually His people would again know his name once He returns, etc. or does this aforementioned conclusion condemn the billions who have never heard this name? In addition, earlier in this passage, shem which is translated to English as name, is defined as reputation, glory, memorial, directions, determinations, establishments, and renown, could imply that those without knowledge of the name Yahuwah, but with understanding of our God, could still be granted safe passage.
I guess ultimately the question boils down to whether there is something there in the Hebrew (e.g., tense) that I just can't see, because I'm struggling with the conclusion as it is translated into English.
Perhaps I just have a mental block, but, again, I'd appreciate any insight on this matter. |
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Shohn of Texas
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 Joined: 6/28/2007(UTC)
Posts: 1,030
Location: Palmyra, VA
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I can't claim to be "qualified" to address this conundrum, but I'm positive I became a child of God long before I learned His name. I was eight years old. I probably didn't even hear the name "Yahweh" until I was in my teens. And I can state will all candor that coming to grips with the significance of His name has been a work in progress in my life for over half a century now. I'm not sure I'll ever "know" his name---His shem: name, reputation, glory, memorial, directions, determinations, establishments, and renown---as well as I'd like to in this life. But I have embraced Yahweh as my heavenly father. And maybe that's the solution. There was a time when I didn't know that my earthly dad's name was Richard Wallace Power. To me, he was simply daddy, that big man who went away every morning and came back home to me and mom and my brothers every evening, who'd give us piggy-back rides and tickle us and tuck us into bed at night. It would have been a shame if I'd never cared enough to learn any more about him than this. And in time, I did learn more than the bare basic minimum about him. But I never called him by his name, except when dealing with strangers. To me, he was always simply "dad."
kp
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Usage of the word SHALL - Isaiah 52:6
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